MM TAX CLUB_whatsapp

MM TAX CLUB

Accounting & Tax Consultancy Firm

Blogs

Customs Brokers Licensing Examination (CBLE) 2026 – Important Update

If you’re preparing to become a licensed Customs Broker, here’s an important update you should not miss.

The Customs Brokers Licensing Examination (CBLE), 2026 has been officially scheduled and the online written examination will be held on ???? 17th March 2026.
This is in continuation of the official advertisement dated 25.08.2025 regarding the examination process.

This exam is a crucial milestone for anyone aiming to build a professional career in customs clearance, logistics, and international trade — so mark your calendars and start preparing seriously!


???? Written Examination Pattern

The written exam will be conducted as a Computer Based Test (CBT) with Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
The question paper will be bilingual – English and Hindi, and candidates can choose to answer in either language.

Exam Details at a Glance:

  • Total Questions: 150

  • Time Duration: 2.5 hours (10:30 AM to 1:00 PM)

  • Marking Scheme:

    • ✅ +3 marks for each correct answer

    • ❌ -1 mark for each incorrect answer

  • Maximum Marks: 450

  • Qualifying Marks: 270 (60%)


???? Oral Examination (Viva Voce)

Candidates who qualify the written examination will have to appear for the oral examination as per Regulation 6 of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018 (as amended).

  • Passing Criteria (Oral Exam): 60% marks required to qualify


???? For Official Information & Queries

For authentic updates and official notifications, candidates are advised to visit:

Or contact:
Customs Commissionerate / NACIN, Palasamudram
???? Email: cblr-nacinpsm[at]gov[dot]in


✨ Final Note

CBLE is not just an exam — it’s a gateway to a regulated professional career in customs broking, trade compliance, and logistics. With structured preparation, clear concepts, and regular practice, cracking this exam is absolutely achievable.

If you’re serious about becoming a licensed Customs Broker —
Now is the time to prepare.
Now is the time to commit.
Now is the time to focus. ????

 

Income Tax Exemption Notified for Tamil Nadu e-Governance Agency under Section 10(46)

The Ministry of Finance, through the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), has issued an important notification granting income tax exemption to the Tamil Nadu e-Governance Agency (TNeGA) under Section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The notification was issued on 21st January, 2026 and is relevant for government agencies, professionals, and stakeholders involved in e-governance and public sector projects.

Let’s understand what this notification means, which incomes are covered, and the conditions attached to the exemption.

What is Section 10(46)?

Section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act allows exemption of income earned by certain authorities, boards, or bodies set up by the Central or State Government, provided the income arises from non-commercial activities carried out in furtherance of public objectives.

Who Has Been Notified?

The Central Government has notified:

Tamil Nadu e-Governance Agency (TNeGA)

  • Formed by: Government of Tamil Nadu

  • PAN: AABTT6381N

TNeGA plays a key role in implementing digital governance initiatives and citizen-centric online services across the state.

Types of Income Eligible for Exemption

The exemption under Section 10(46) applies only to specified income, which includes:

  1. Government Grants & Contributions

    • Recurring grants or grants-in-aid received from the Government of Tamil Nadu or other specified authorities for operational expenses.

  2. Service Charges via Common Service Centres (CSCs)

    • Charges collected for providing online services to citizens through CSCs.

  3. IT & Software-Related Services

    • Service charges from:

      • Software development projects

      • IT consultancy services

      • Projects undertaken for other State Government departments, PSUs, or statutory boards

    • Interest earned on advance funds received for such projects until disbursement.

  4. Dividend Income

    • Dividend received from CSC e-Governance Services India Limited (CSC-SPV).

  5. Administrative Charges on UIDAI Projects

    • Administrative costs on PEC grants released by UIDAI to enrolment agencies, where TNeGA acts as the enrolment registrar.

  6. Online Examination Revenue

    • Revenue sharing income from conducting online examinations for State Government departments, PSUs, or statutory bodies.

  7. Incidental or Ancillary Income

    • Any other income that may arise in future, provided it is incidental to or in furtherance of TNeGA’s objectives.

  8. Interest Income

    • Interest earned on any of the above specified incomes.

Conditions Attached to the Exemption

The exemption is not automatic and is subject to strict compliance with the following conditions:

  1. No Commercial Activity

    • TNeGA must not engage in any commercial or profit-oriented activities.

  2. Nature of Activities Must Remain the Same

    • The activities and nature of income must remain unchanged across the financial years.

  3. Mandatory Filing of Return

    • The agency must file its income tax return as per Section 139(4C)(g) of the Income-tax Act.

???? Non-compliance with these conditions may lead to:

  • Penal action under the Income-tax Act, and

  • Withdrawal of exemption granted under Section 10(46).

 Period for Which Exemption Applies

  • The notification is retrospectively applicable for:

    • AY 2024-25

    • AY 2025-26

  • It will also apply prospectively for:

    • AY 2026-27

    • AY 2027-28

    • AY 2028-29

The Explanatory Memorandum clarifies that no person is adversely affected due to the retrospective application of this notification.

Key Takeaway

This notification reinforces the government’s intent to support e-governance initiatives by providing tax relief to agencies working exclusively for public welfare without a commercial motive.

Access Notification

Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) 2018-19 Series V: Premature Redemption Price Announced for January 2026

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released an important update for investors holding Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) 2018-19 Series V. As per the latest press release dated 21 January 2026, the premature redemption price for this tranche has been officially announced.

Let’s break it down in simple terms.


Who Is Eligible for Premature Redemption?

According to RBI guidelines, Sovereign Gold Bonds can be redeemed prematurely after completion of 5 years from the date of issue, but only on the interest payment dates.

  • Issue Date: 22 January 2019

  • 5 Years Completed On: 22 January 2024

  • Next Eligible Premature Redemption Date: 22 January 2026

So, investors holding SGB 2018-19 Series V can opt for premature redemption on 22 January 2026.


Premature Redemption Price

The redemption price is calculated based on the simple average of closing gold prices of 999 purity for the previous three business days, as published by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association Ltd. (IBJA).

For this tranche:

  • Redemption Price: ₹14,853 per unit

  • Gold Price Average Dates Considered:

    • 19 January 2026

    • 20 January 2026

    • 21 January 2026


Why This Matters for Investors

  • If gold prices have increased since your investment, you may benefit from capital appreciation.

  • SGBs also offer 2.5% annual interest, which is paid semi-annually.

  • Capital gains on redemption with RBI are tax-free for individual investors (a major advantage over physical gold).


Key Takeaway

If you are holding SGB 2018-19 Series V, this is a good time to:

  • Review your investment goals

  • Compare market gold prices

  • Decide whether to redeem or continue holding until maturity

Premature redemption at ₹14,853 per unit could be attractive depending on your purchase price and financial planning needs.


If you need help with tax implications, investment planning, or portfolio review, feel free to consult a professional before making a decision.

Source: RBI Press Release (January 21, 2026)

RBI Extends Restrictions on Konark Urban Co-operative Bank, Ulhasnagar Till April 23, 2026

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has once again extended the directions imposed on The Konark Urban Co-operative Bank Ltd., Ulhasnagar, citing public interest. As per the latest press release dated January 20, 2026, the restrictions will now continue till April 23, 2026, subject to review.

Background of the RBI Directions

Earlier, RBI had issued directions to the bank under Section 35A read with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. These directions were initially imposed for six months up to October 23, 2024, and were later extended up to January 23, 2026.

After reviewing the situation, RBI has decided that it is necessary to further extend the directive in the interest of depositors and the general public.

Latest Extension – Key Details

  • Extension period: 3 months

  • From: January 23, 2026

  • To: April 23, 2026

  • Status: Subject to review by RBI

This means that the bank will continue to operate under the same restrictions for the extended period.

Important Clarification by RBI

RBI has clearly stated that this extension should not be interpreted as confirmation of the bank’s financial soundness. The extension is purely a regulatory measure and does not imply RBI’s satisfaction with the bank’s financial position.

What About Other Conditions?

All existing terms and conditions of the directive remain unchanged. Customers and stakeholders should continue to follow the previously notified restrictions until further instructions are issued by RBI.

What Should Depositors Do?

If you are a customer of Konark Urban Co-operative Bank:

  • Stay updated with official RBI notifications

  • Avoid relying on rumors or unofficial sources

  • Plan finances cautiously during the restriction period

  • Consult a financial or tax professional if needed

Conclusion

The RBI’s decision to extend the directions highlights its continued monitoring of the bank’s operations. Depositors are advised to remain cautious and informed until RBI issues further updates after review.

NPS Vatsalya: A Smart Way to Secure Your Child’s Financial Future from an Early Age

When we think about planning for our children, education and healthcare usually come first. But what about their long-term financial security? Recognising this gap, the government has introduced NPS Vatsalya, a pension and savings scheme designed exclusively for minors.

Recently, the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) released detailed NPS Vatsalya Scheme Guidelines, 2025, bringing much-needed clarity for parents and guardians who want to start early financial planning for their children.

Let’s break it down in simple terms.


What is NPS Vatsalya?

NPS Vatsalya is a long-term contributory savings scheme for children below 18 years of age. It allows parents or legal guardians to start building a retirement-sized corpus for their child from a very young age.

The account is opened in the child’s name, with the guardian managing it until the child becomes a major. Once the child turns 18, the account can smoothly transition into a regular NPS Tier I account.

In short, it’s about starting early, staying disciplined, and thinking long term.


Who Can Open an NPS Vatsalya Account?

  • Any Indian citizen, including NRI or OCI children

  • Child must be below 18 years

  • The minor is the sole beneficiary

  • The account is operated by the parent or legal guardian


Contribution Rules: Small Amounts, Big Impact

One of the biggest advantages of NPS Vatsalya is how accessible it is.

  • Minimum initial and annual contribution: ₹250

  • No maximum contribution limit

  • Contributions can also be gifted by relatives or friends

This makes it ideal even for middle-income families who want to start small but stay consistent.


Choice of Pension Fund

The guardian can choose any pension fund registered with PFRDA. This gives flexibility to align investments with long-term goals and risk appetite.


Partial Withdrawals: Help When It Matters

Life is unpredictable, and the scheme recognises that.

  • Partial withdrawal allowed after 3 years

  • Up to 25% of own contributions (returns excluded)

  • Allowed for:

    • Education

    • Medical treatment

    • Specified disabilities

  • Limited number of withdrawals, ensuring long-term discipline

This balance between flexibility and discipline is a thoughtful feature.


What Happens When the Child Turns 18?

At 18, fresh KYC is mandatory, and the child has options until age 21:

  1. Continue under NPS Vatsalya

  2. Shift to NPS Tier I

  3. Exit the scheme:

    • Up to 80% as lump sum

    • At least 20% to be annuitised

    • Full withdrawal allowed if total corpus is ₹8 lakh or less

This ensures continuity without forcing immediate decisions.


Why NPS Vatsalya Matters

NPS Vatsalya isn’t just another savings scheme. It promotes:

  • A habit of saving from childhood

  • Financial literacy at an early age

  • Long-term planning aligned with the vision of Viksit Bharat@2047

It’s especially impactful in rural and semi-urban areas, where community workers like Anganwadi workers, ASHAs, and Bank Sakhis will play a key role in spreading awareness.


Final Thoughts

If you’re a parent thinking beyond short-term goals, NPS Vatsalya is worth serious consideration. Starting early gives compounding enough time to work its magic—and that’s something no last-minute investment can replace.

After all, when it comes to our children’s future, time is the most powerful investment of all.